2 条题解

  • 2
    @ 2021-11-4 20:33:00

    我们很容易发现 apa_p 可以表示为 a1x×a2×ya_1^x\times a_2\times y . 所以现在只需要考虑 x,yx, y 分别是什么 .

    根据

    $$x_1 = 1, y_1 = 0 \\ x_2 = 0, y_2 = 1 \\ \forall i\in[3, +\inf), x_i = x_{i-1}+x_{i-2}, y_i = y_{i - 1}+y_{i - 2} $$

    所以 xx 为斐波那契数列第 p2p-2 项, yyp1p - 1

    矩阵快速幂 + 快速幂即可。

    #include <cstdio>
    #include <algorithm>
    
    #define int long long
    
    using namespace std;
    
    const int M = 998244353;
    const int P = 998244352;
    
    struct N
    {
        int cs, xs;
    };
    
    N Fibo(int n)
    {
        N res, cur;
        if (n == 0)
        {
            res.cs = 0;
            res.xs = 0;
            return res;
        }
        if (n == 1)
        {
            res.cs = 1;
            res.xs = 0;
            return res;
        }
        cur = Fibo(n >> 1);
        res.cs = cur.cs * ((cur.xs << 1) % P + cur.cs) % P;
        res.xs = (cur.cs * cur.cs % P + cur.xs * cur.xs % P) % P;
        if (n & 1)
        {
            int tmp = res.cs;
            res.cs = res.xs;
            res.xs = tmp;
            (res.cs += res.xs) %= P;
        }
        return res;
    } 
    
    int n, m, k, indn, indm;
    
    int qpow(int x, int y)
    {
        if (y == 0) return 1;
        int t = qpow(x, y >> 1);
        t *= t, t %= M;
        if (y & 1) t *= x, t %= M;
        return t;
    }
    
    signed main()
    {
        scanf("%lld %lld %lld", &n, &m, &k);
        indn = Fibo(k - 2).cs, indm = Fibo(k - 1).cs;
        printf("%lld\n", qpow(n, indn) * qpow(m, indm) % M);
        return 0;
    }
    

    信息

    ID
    190
    时间
    1000ms
    内存
    256MiB
    难度
    7
    标签
    递交数
    94
    已通过
    23
    上传者